I understand that 3/4 is called waltz time (although not all pieces in 3/4 are waltzes). I've been told that in waltzes you do not not accent beat 1 but beat 2 and 3. This makes dancing easier.
So if the accent is on beat 1 then it's not a waltz in the formal definition, right?
And in 4/4 we often say that the strong beats are 1 and 3 which are accented/emphasised in classical music whereas beats 2 and 4 are accented in jazz/pop music. In 3/4 is the strong beats 2 and 3 or 1? Maybe we cannot really talk about strong beats in 3/4 as that only applies to 4/4 or 2/2?
In An der schönen blauen Donau I do not really hear the straight beat popular in classical music. The beat is not simply based on three crotchets but it's more swingy even if it's classical music. What do you make of this?
I played a country music progression on piano) with the straight crotchets (bass note then chord chord) and it sounded a bit simplified and boring. Even classical music sounded more swingy and dancy. I wonder if anyone can dance waltz to that...