Hi,
I've been having a phase of rabid interest in medieval and renaissance polyphony in recent months. I've been reading on the web about Christopher Page and the 'English' a capella heresy; the thorny question as to whether polyphonic pieces should be accompanied by instruments or not. Whilst I've been a little disturbed by the sheer venom I've seen directed at the Britich Vocal groups in some quarters, I suppose that it's normal when they've dominated the field for so long and I do think that there should always be room for alternative approaches. Anyway, the point is that I don't think that my concern with this is anything to do with 'patriotism' or any kind of nationalistic feeling, although I am sorry to report that I am indeed English. I was initially attracted to the performance of this music unaccompanied and I can't say that I've enjoyed much of it that I've heard when instruments are used. That's by no means meant to be exclusive, as I've enjoyed some examples when the instrumentation has been discreet and not obscured the polyphony. Essentially though, I'm of the opinion that the a capella approach produces vatly superior results and I'd be disappointed to see that 'go out of fashion', so to speak.
''Would you get to the point?'' I hear you ask. Very well. Whilst there does seem to have been a fairly predictable backlash against the success of the British vocal groups (Tallis Scholars et al) on a number of fronts, what concerns me is the statements I've seen that the scholarly view (since the late 70's/early 80's) that these kinds of music should, generally, be sung without instruments has been overturned in the last few years (recently enough not to have featured in Daniel Leech-Wilkinson's 'The Invention of Medieval Music' of 2002).
This is from an interview with the group Cantica Symphonia:
Quote:
You perform these motets with instruments. How much use was made of such instruments in Dufay’s day? Were they used for all performances or for occasions of special importance?
Giuseppe Maletto: Until recently, there has been a sort of crusade against the use of instruments in medieval sacred music. Yet not all sacred music is liturgical music. The term “motet” is applied both to pieces written for particular political and social events and to pieces to be sung during the liturgy. Even in the case of liturgical music, recent research has removed most doubts about the use of instruments. Nevertheless, some performers and critics continue to hold intransigent positions. I believe that in music, and not only, any sort of fundamentalism is harmful.
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Admittedly this might be taken to imply that anyone who doesn't like his records must be a Nazi, but I presume that it is actually based on something.
Similarly this quote is from a reviewer on Amazon:
Quote:
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There was a period when performances of Renaissance works performed on instruments or with instrumental doubling of vocal parts came to be frowned upon in preference to a capella performances. Around the time this recording was released things had come full circle and both approaches came to be embraced. Erik van Nevel is clearly a scholar fully aware of the latest thoughts in these matters and the listener can rest assured that in matters of performance practice he knows perfectly well what he is doing. The suggestions of ignorance from the previous reviewer should be turned instead on the reviewer himself.
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My question therefore is, what has changed regarding the scholarship on this issue in the last few years that has lead these people to believe that instrumentation is an 'acceptable norm'. Has there been new evidence about this issue discovered or have new interpretations of the existing evidence been promulgated, and if so what are they?
Any help would be appreciated.