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Thread: Romantic philosophy applied to pre-Romantic music.

  1. #31
    Senior Member millionrainbows's Avatar
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    I think the Romantic/Classical distinction is based on human psychology. What makes either one dominant in a particular era is the context it is put in. For Mozart's time, Classical was the way to be; as society changed, as power structures shifted from the Church to the sciences, Romanticism cropped up. It will probably continue to cycle like this between the poles of Man's psyche.

    For instance the 1960's was a 'Dionysian' time; now, what was being done then (experimentation, 30 minute guitar solos, underground FM stations, drug-influenced music) is considered 'over the top' or inappropriate.
    If Dr. Phil can't dance to it, it is 'sociopathic' music created by narcissistic ne'r-do-wells. Music must be "certified" by society's standards. Those standards presently are: players can not be on drugs, players must have a healthy perspective and not be 'outsiders' like Jimi Hendrix, volume must be controlled, music must not 'incite' or be overtly political (such as anti-war), and must not "offend" any groups of people who are recognized as 'accepted' in society.

    Now, in the present, music is more controlled than ever. "Experts" know what music is, and what's good. In the 60's, nobody knew. A "poetic" group like The Doors would never have lasted.

    Doesn't this pretty much explain it? I guess to really understand the differences and reasons behind Classicism/Romanticism, you "had to be there."
    Last edited by millionrainbows; Yesterday at 20:06.
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  2. #32
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    Quote Originally Posted by millionrainbows View Post

    . Those standards presently are: players can not be on drugs, players must have a healthy perspective and not be 'outsiders' like Jimi Hendrix, volume must be controlled, music must not 'incite' or be overtly political (such as anti-war), and must not "offend" any groups of people who are recognized as 'accepted' in society.



    Not here, listen to some Brixton Drill.

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