Hello.
I wonder if there's such a thing as "pure" modal writing in the Renaissance?
I've been obsessively reading about it and looking at scores of the masters. The more I do so, the more I wonder WHY composers seemed to avoid the real colour of the modes by obscuring them with so much Musica Ficta...
Don't get me wrong. I love this music as it is, but I'm trying to find examples of more modal-sounding music with "Te-Do" cadences, i.e., where the Cantizans is not raised --similar to how it acts in Phrygian--, or examples of what we would call now v - I or v - i (Cantizans kept diatonic as a minor 3rd against the bass, while the Bassizans descends down by a P5th). This gives instant Dorian/Mixolydian/Aeolian flavours, but that's precisely what they seem to be avoiding.
I haven't heard pure Lydian treatment either (why the insistence of making it molle/soft by lowering the #4, in essence making it Ionian, or why the insistence on raising Mixolydian's 7th degree, in essence turning it into Ionian too?). Why?
It's almost as if they were trying to avoid these true modal colours like the plague. What am I missing?
At first I thought it had something to do with the avoidance of harsh lines involving the tritone, but every mode (even Ionian) has the tritone somewhere anyway. If it is involved as part of the reason, it's a bit ironic that the same tritone in Ionian and Aeolian contexts, the one they were trying to avoid in the first place, is what ended up hammering the last nail in the coffin of the modes for the next new era of music anyway, with its dominant-function harmony.
Or perhaps I just haven't come across any examples yet (with such a vast repertoire)?
Please let me know if you can direct me in the right direction...
Yesterday night I listened to des Prez. I think I heard a few subtle instances of this in a few cadences, but it was too subtle and only in a couple of them (I have yet to sit down and analyze them with the score, though).
Was there a school or a time, or a "rebel" composer who used the modes in their pure form in sophisticated polyphony?
Or perhaps I'm looking in the wrong era? I 'd like to find examples of more Medieval-sounding choral works, but with the polyphonic sophistication of the Renaissance masters (please listen to the example I include that shows this "pure" modal sound, Mixolydian in this case, that I want).
Would I have better luck with secular music of the time perhaps?
If I'm understanding the history correctly, and the modes were originally invented to chant the Psalms and give different moods according to the texts, I wonder why they abandoned this "mood" thinking later on.
Why not simply write in Ionian when they wanted THAT particular cadential sound instead of forcing the other modes with Musica Ficta into something they were not, and limiting their sound-palette? Then they would still have all the other flavours pure when the occasion warranted...
You'll make me a very happy person if you explain this to me, or if you can refer me to some daring examples of what I seek.
Thank you!
I wonder if there's such a thing as "pure" modal writing in the Renaissance?
I've been obsessively reading about it and looking at scores of the masters. The more I do so, the more I wonder WHY composers seemed to avoid the real colour of the modes by obscuring them with so much Musica Ficta...
Don't get me wrong. I love this music as it is, but I'm trying to find examples of more modal-sounding music with "Te-Do" cadences, i.e., where the Cantizans is not raised --similar to how it acts in Phrygian--, or examples of what we would call now v - I or v - i (Cantizans kept diatonic as a minor 3rd against the bass, while the Bassizans descends down by a P5th). This gives instant Dorian/Mixolydian/Aeolian flavours, but that's precisely what they seem to be avoiding.
I haven't heard pure Lydian treatment either (why the insistence of making it molle/soft by lowering the #4, in essence making it Ionian, or why the insistence on raising Mixolydian's 7th degree, in essence turning it into Ionian too?). Why?
It's almost as if they were trying to avoid these true modal colours like the plague. What am I missing?
At first I thought it had something to do with the avoidance of harsh lines involving the tritone, but every mode (even Ionian) has the tritone somewhere anyway. If it is involved as part of the reason, it's a bit ironic that the same tritone in Ionian and Aeolian contexts, the one they were trying to avoid in the first place, is what ended up hammering the last nail in the coffin of the modes for the next new era of music anyway, with its dominant-function harmony.
Or perhaps I just haven't come across any examples yet (with such a vast repertoire)?
Please let me know if you can direct me in the right direction...
Yesterday night I listened to des Prez. I think I heard a few subtle instances of this in a few cadences, but it was too subtle and only in a couple of them (I have yet to sit down and analyze them with the score, though).
Was there a school or a time, or a "rebel" composer who used the modes in their pure form in sophisticated polyphony?
Or perhaps I'm looking in the wrong era? I 'd like to find examples of more Medieval-sounding choral works, but with the polyphonic sophistication of the Renaissance masters (please listen to the example I include that shows this "pure" modal sound, Mixolydian in this case, that I want).
Would I have better luck with secular music of the time perhaps?
If I'm understanding the history correctly, and the modes were originally invented to chant the Psalms and give different moods according to the texts, I wonder why they abandoned this "mood" thinking later on.
Why not simply write in Ionian when they wanted THAT particular cadential sound instead of forcing the other modes with Musica Ficta into something they were not, and limiting their sound-palette? Then they would still have all the other flavours pure when the occasion warranted...
You'll make me a very happy person if you explain this to me, or if you can refer me to some daring examples of what I seek.
Thank you!