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Why do many people think that classical music composed for film scores is not classical music?

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In the "Movie Corner" I opened a poll about the film scores which got the nomination "Best original score" in the Academy Awards (Oscars) of 1990: Talkclassical best film score award - 1990

This is for the first part of the competition Talkclassical best film score award.

Now, the score of the film "The Fabulous Baker Boys" (one of the film nominated in 1990) could be probably classified as Jazz (see for example the first theme) and Intrumental pop (see for example the second theme).


I think that no one would say that this is not jazz music because it was composed for a film. No one would say "this is not jazz but film music". Indeed, film music is not a genre of music: it only means that the music was composed for a film.

However, the other four nominated film scores, I think that can be classified as "romantic music".
Usually, the film scores which get a nomination for the "Best original scores" are more or less classical music.

That's why the radio Classic FM started to insert some film scores in the competition Classic FM Hall of Fame.
Their decision is criticized by many people. Read for example this article of the journal "The Guardian": Can film music ever be classical?

The argument of the writer of this article is that film scores can never be classified as "classical music" because they are composed for images and not for concerts (so, it is not standalone music, but a part of the movie).
If this argument is valid, then we must conclude that the score of "The Fabulous Baker Boys" is not jazz because it was composed for images and not for concerts.

However, I agree that pure "motion music" is not extractable from it's context, but the best film scores (the one who win at The Academy Awards) are not simply "motion music": it's music that can be extracted as standalone music. Indeed, the best score composers sell tickets for concerts.


Maybe the real reason of these people is that they think that John Williams is not as good as Beethoven, Mozart, Bach and so on and they see classical music as a "closed enclosure" where you can enter only if you have a special permission.
If it is so, still I don't see the logic: you don't have to be Roger Federer for being a tennis player. So, you could simply say "Peter is a tennis player but not the number one" and "John Williams is a classical music composer but not the number one".

You might say that Bach is the number one and John Williams only an ordinary composer, if you think this, but I don't see the logic of "the closed enclosure".
Someone could for example say that the composer of "The Fabulous Baker Boys" is a poor jazz composer, but it's still jazz.


To conclude, my opinion is that much of the music composed for film scores is good classical music: "good" is my personal judgement, but every one can have his own.
If you ask me "Don't you hear the difference between classical music and film scores?", my anwser is that usually film scores are built around one or more powerful themes, while some pieces in classical music are not so melody focused.
I won't say that film scores don't have their distinticive rules, but that those rules are compatible with classical music, because there are many pieces that are considered "classical" that are built around a main theme.
"Spring" of Vivaldi is a good example.
The idea that classical music must be "chaotic" is only a personal preference of some people and not a rule that every composer must respect.
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"Intrinsic" when applied to a category to me implies that a) these factors can be identified purely by observation of the work itself (i.e. without taking into account external factors such as country-of-origin or composition time), and b) without these factors, a work wouldn't belong in this category.

I also want to make it clear that music composed in the same period by composers working with a similar set of influences are likely to show significant stylistic similarities - but my position has been that calling these "intrinsic factors" is mixing the cause for the effect. They show these similarities because (to simplify things) we identify a period of interest and study music from it - we don't try to seek out all music which "sounds" a certain way and shove them all together - at least not as far as classical music is concerned.

I also think that the whole "shove everything before Bach into a big 'early music' box" thing is based less on musical analysis (because it's fairly obvious that pre-Bach music has an extraordinary amount of variety), and more based, as genres frequently are, on questions of marketing and demographics, i.e. if someone likes Palestrina records they might be interested in Josquin records, etc.

Already replied to this a few pages ago - they were conscious and purposeful about adhering to their time's aesthetics and even wrote texts and articles about it, see "War of the Romantics" or "Enlightenment ideals" - it wasn't just random, blind "they were influenced by contemporaries".


And also see my post above - just use compound period+style+whatever terms and the debate is over (or is at least made a whole lot clearer and more productive).
Being conscious about adhering to the aesthetic ideals of your time is the definition of being influenced by your contemporaries, I would think.
possibly off-topic but also wanted to mention - while you can potentially identify certain genres of music which are based on intrinsic factors (such as electronic music), what you can't identify is why that genre exists in the first place. genres aren't just arbitrary things scholars make up - they can occur because there is an external reason to categorize music in such a way, be it sociological, historical, or even marketing-based.

"Electronic music" and "Music written in the key of C Minor": are both categories of music which are based on intrinsic properties of the music. Only one of these is a relevant genre, though, and that's because there are a number of reasons that "electronic music" is identified as its own category of interest, with its own history, set of cultural influences, culture of listeners, etc - and "music in C minor" is not.
Um, modality vs. tonality and the intended and purposeful "new simplicity" of the galant style / classicist composers ARE intrinsic factors.

You don't seem to always read the things lol


I mean I'm lagging behind a lot when it comes to a lot of the the link+analysis posts here (incl. those written in response to myself), however those can take a bit of time, so there's an excuse lol
Being conscious about adhering to the aesthetic ideals of your time is the definition of being influenced by your contemporaries, I would think.
No not quite - huge difference between "oh f, I need to complete this for my count boss - uh, I can get influenced by guy x and guy y then" and "this is our new artistic philosophy which we'll incorporate into music and adhere to in these following ways".

The latter is a self-conscious adoption of a style, and "baroque" for one is primarily a stylistic definition - the word started out as a derisive term for the "convoluted" aesthetics of that period; also see the alternative term "basso continuo era".


As opposed to "music of the ancient Romans", which is defined by the historical period and not the style.
Literally repeating myself here, but oh well lol nvm
The implication of identifying stylistic similarities in a genre and taking these to be intrinsic identifiers of the genre I take is that if we identify a composer with strange ideas about aesthetics who didn't strictly adhere to the musical forms of their period, then it would be incorrect to call their music "baroque"/"Renaissance"/"medieval" et al, which I don't think I can support.


In fact I think this is especially important because our view on musical history is still influenced a great deal by the romantic artist figure, and many listeners and historians value musicians who didn't conform to the aesthetics of their era. (or ones whose art marked significant changes in aesthetic values)
I will borrow a concept from architecture: "form follows function."

Some here dismiss the idea that the function or purpose music is written has a determining factor in what kind of music it is. What I get from those arguing that music composed for film can be classical is a superficial understanding of what classical music is.

I have friends in L.A. who work in the film music world. If a guy who went to music school and got a composition degree has a knack for networking/schmoozing, has the right politics, wears the right clothes, and doesn't mind sublimating his own artistic vision to the demands of whatever project is is hired for - he can use his education as a composer to write for an orchestra.

He can make a living a lot easier than as a straight classical composer trying to get commissions. Sometimes he can make a very lucrative living. But he knows he is not writing classical music.
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The problem I have with "it's not classical because it's subsumed to a function" is that this identifies a great deal of classical music, from liturgical music, to operas, to baroque tafelmusick, and even dance music.
No not quite - huge difference between "oh f, I need to complete this for my count boss - uh, I can get influenced by guy x and guy y then" and "this is our new artistic philosophy which we'll incorporate into music and adhere to in these following ways".

The latter is a self-conscious adoption of a style, and "baroque" for one is primarily a stylistic definition - the word started out as a derisive term for the "convoluted" aesthetics of that period; also see the alternative term "basso continuo era".
I don't think the difference is as relevant as you make it to be. Also to be more clear, when I say "influenced by contemporaries", that might read better as "By peers", as one thing composers historically, and currently, love to do is comment on each other's music - including discussions about aesthetics.
^^Ok that's just something about how a particular industry/scene works at a particular place and time, doesn't say much of anything about anything else.

What I get from those arguing that music composed for film can be classical is a superficial understanding of what classical music is.
Dude "your side" can't even make up your minds about what it is.


The implication of identifying stylistic similarities in a genre and taking these to be intrinsic identifiers of the genre I take is that if we identify a composer with strange ideas about aesthetics who didn't strictly adhere to the musical forms of their period, then it would be incorrect to call their music "baroque"/"Renaissance"/"medieval" et al, which I don't think I can support.
You mean like Gesualdo or something?

Well that could be considered a "grey area", and certainly people might start arguing about whether to consider some kind of outlier as renaissance, baroque etc., why not?


And as I just kept saying 3 times, you need separate terms for period / style anyway - if you pick "baroque" to be one of those, you still need another term for the other.
Or you'll end up with lots of confusion and miscommunication.

Jesus Christ what a pointless debate
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I don't think the difference is as relevant as you make it to be. Also to be more clear, when I say "influenced by contemporaries", that might read better as "By peers", as one thing composers historically, and currently, love to do is comment on each other's music - including discussions about aesthetics.
Sure there's inbetween-things on that spectrum - however the War of the Romantics, for instance, evolved into a much, much more organized tribal conflict between two factions, each with different ideals.
It wasn't just a "oh, today I'll get influenced by this Progressive peer, and then maybe have a relaxed aesthetics discussion with that Conservative one, it's all so interesting!", certainly not during its peak.
And as I just kept saying 3 times, you need separate terms for period / style anyway - if you pick "baroque" to be one of those, you still need another term for the other.
Or you'll end up with lots of confusion and miscommunication.
It's genre. It can be defined by any which way, and is often poorly defined because they are socially constructed categories where the boundaries are frequently (though not always) not clear. This isn't localized to academics, or you've never heard a tedious argument about whether the Clash are "real Punk" or not.

The objection I have isn't that someone might say the Vienna Philharmonic playing the theme to Star Wars is "classical music" (in fact, I think it is). It's that I don't think the idea of "this sounds like classical music, so it is" makes much sense because "sounds like classical music" isn't a concept that makes much sense under a slight amount of scrutiny.
Sure there's inbetween-things on that spectrum - however the War of the Romantics, for instance, evolved into a much, much more organized tribal conflict between two factions, each with different ideals.
It wasn't just a "oh, today I'll get influenced by this Progressive peer, and then maybe have a relaxed aesthetics discussion with that Conservative one, it's all so interesting!", certainly not during its peak.
"discussion about each other's music" can include "totally trashing each other's music", which composers sometimes seemingly liked to do even more than composing itself. Plus ca change etc etc
Jesus Christ what a pointless debate
Well jeez, nobody's forcing you to post.

I like discussing the context of art because I find it a fascinating topic but if you don't want that, there are many other threads to post in.
There is the inescapable fact that, assuming I'm not in some unique category, we know what classical music is because we listen to it, and we know that what we tchoose to listen to is, broadly speaking, called classical music.

I listen to it because I like how it sounds, not how, where or when it was written, or whether it is studied in music schools. I include under this label, Bach's organ music, symphonies by composers from the 1700s to the 1970s and piano works from Beethoven to Debussy (though that's obviously not all...I'm posting in a hurry).

However, I would still call film music, film music, not classical, regardless of whether it is composed in jazz, pop or classical styles.
The problem I have with "it's not classical because it's subsumed to a function" is that this identifies a great deal of classical music, from liturgical music, to operas, to baroque tafelmusick, and even dance music.
Function is part of the equation, but so is artistic control and formal concerns. A composer writing a classical work writes differently than if he were writing music for a film.
There is the inescapable fact that, assuming I'm not in some unique category, we know what classical music is because we listen to it, and we know that what we tchoose to listen to is, broadly speaking, called classical music.

I listen to it because I like how it sounds, not how, where or when it was written, or whether it is studied in music schools. I include under this label, Bach's organ music, symphonies by composers from the 1700s to the 1970s and piano works from Beethoven to Debussy (though that's obviously not all...I'm posting in a hurry).
Right!

The point is exactly this one: the categories must be based on INTRINSIC PROPERTIES of music (which translate to a determined style/aesthetic) for the simple fact that people are normally attracted to determined aesthetics and at the same time they reject other aesthetics.
So, please, don't tell us that aesthetic is not important in classification: it's the fundamental point!

If the fifth symphony of Beethoven was composed as rock piece, and not with the aesthetic we all know, it wouldn't have attracted my interest.



Thanks @YusufeVirdayyLmao: I'm sure that even the composers had ideal of aesthetic in mind and were consciously following them. This makes perfectly sense. As the "sound" is the essential point of music, the goal of the composers will be to produce a determined sound which sounds right to their ears.

Say what you want, but people who have the same aesthetic ideals of the composers of the classical period and around need to give a name to this aesthetic, and the easiest solution is to use the word "classical music", since it already exists.
If you want to indicate other properties with the word "classical music", then you must tell us what is the name of the style/aesthetic. If you tell me that the style/aesthetic is called "porridge", then I'll use it to indicate the music of Mozart and Beethoven as well as the music of John Williams.

However, (I'll go on here below)...

However, I would still call film music, film music, not classical, regardless of whether it is composed in jazz, pop or classical styles.
... however I don't see what is the problem if we use the word "classical film music". @SanAntone asks me why is it so important for me to use this word (the reason is explained here above), but I relaunch with an other question: why is it so important for you that we don't use the word "classical film music"?

If you don't like "classical film music", you can simply listen to classical music which is not film music and you are done. So, what's the problem in practice? What's the polemic?
I don't understand why we should call film music simply "film music", if we can use more precise terms like "pop film music", "rock film music", "electronic film music" and "classical film music" to understand what we are speaking about. What kind of dogma is the idea that we must use only "film music" as category! If I wanted to create a big database of film music, the users might want to filter it by genre.
It's when people have pragmatic needs that the steryle polemics like this one dissolve and show their senselessness.
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It's genre. It can be defined by any which way, and is often poorly defined because they are socially constructed categories where the boundaries are frequently (though not always) not clear. This isn't localized to academics, or you've never heard a tedious argument about whether the Clash are "real Punk" or not.

The objection I have isn't that someone might say the Vienna Philharmonic playing the theme to Star Wars is "classical music" (in fact, I think it is). It's that I don't think the idea of "this sounds like classical music, so it is" makes much sense because "sounds like classical music" isn't a concept that makes much sense under a slight amount of scrutiny.
Hm ok, if your point is that all these category labels aren't clearly defined in terms of whether they're based on style or instruments or place/time of creation, then the conclusion is that "this is a fruitless debate with no clear answer" isn't it?

Whether "it's CM if it sounds like CM" or "it's CM if it was written before 1930" or various others, none of them are "correct" since it's all undefined, right?


So if that's case, it can either be left this way and this debate can disperse, or there can be an attempt to find/coin new terms which unambiguously refer to certain criteria and would prevent such confusion down the line - no?

Like what else is there left to do lol




"discussion about each other's music" can include "totally trashing each other's music", which composers sometimes seemingly liked to do even more than composing itself. Plus ca change etc etc
Sure, although again I was talking about the difference between random acts of trashing, and organized, collective conflicts between sides that rally around particular sets of ideals or stylistics, and consciously see themselves that way.

Or, without wars/conflicts, just art movements with particular values, ideals and goals that they consciously pursue.


If such a movement (whether in conflict with a rival movement or not) coins a particular aesthetic, it makes a lot of sense to refer to that aesthetic as a genre, based on its stylistic (or "intrinsic") properties;

and if of course an aesthetic arises on its own, "naturally", then that also makes sense - except it wouldn't be tied to any ideology or movement, and it would somewhat make more sense to primarily go by era rather than style;
although really just by both each lol.

And if there's a historic era but no clear style, like, uh, the 20th century, then obviously you just say 20th century eh.


Again, there seems to be nothing to debate about here - those interested in having a clear language, can try to work something out; those who aren't, obviously don't have to.


Well jeez, nobody's forcing you to post.

I like discussing the context of art because I find it a fascinating topic but if you don't want that, there are many other threads to post in.
It was an observation - the impression was that things were going in circles.

Imo it can be an interesting topic, but not quite so much when
1) everyone's talking past one another and doesn't pay attention to anything, and/or
2) too many are invested in some kind of turf wrestle war, resulting in 1).



There is the inescapable fact that, assuming I'm not in some unique category, we know what classical music is because we listen to it, and we know that what we tchoose to listen to is, broadly speaking, called classical music.
The term "classical" has very little meaning to me except as a general orientation (such as when finding this forum) - there's a general conception of "things written between the Middle Ages and the early 20th century", particular traits they share, and various things created since then which have various common traits with those vs. differences;

beyond that, whenever it comes to either naming this or related categories in casual conversation, or talking about categorization and whatnot, I'd opt to start by throwing out this word and looking for alternatives that have:
-a clearer meaning
-don't come with this automatic implication of "Schrödinger's elitism" which I expanded on earlier.



Either way, having failed to follow up on my intention to stay out of this subject for a while and only comment on tangential issues Why do many people think that classical music composed..., I'll go have another go at it I suppose.
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Hm ok, if your point is that all these category labels aren't clearly defined in terms of whether they're based on style or instruments or place/time of creation, then the conclusion is that "this is a fruitless debate with no clear answer" isn't it?
If the point is to conclusively and scientifically determine whether or not film music is classical music, then yes.

As I stated, my point of objection is that a) "Sounds like classical music" isn't a term which makes a lot of sense past a very superficial level, and b) Attempts to define classical music by aesthetic grounds have a habit (as they've done in film music threads in the past) of being used as an attempt to reject modernist classical music as not being classical music. In fact, in years past, this has gotten bad enough that people were posting about how it should not be discussed at all on this forum.
Attempts to define classical music by aesthetic grounds have a habit (as they've done in film music threads in the past) of being used as an attempt to reject modernist classical music as not being classical music.
What's interesting is that this seems to be a phenomenon specific to this forum. It's not really something I've encountered in my circles, either outside or inside of the contemporary classical music world.
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Function is part of the equation, but so is artistic control and formal concerns. A composer writing a classical work writes differently than if he were writing music for a film.
Yes, what would Beethoven or Brahms think of film music, and what would they think of composing film music?
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